5-20x is a statistical anomaly? 5 to 20x the gun homicide rate as
countries in Europe.
You don't understand statistics do you? First of all 11K homicides over 285m guns is a 0.004% chance --- or 0.00004... not .00004 PERCENT, but I'm seriously not going to nitpick on that, just want to make it clear for the next comparison I'm going to make.
The Boeing 707 had a LIFETIME fatal accident rate of 0.004%. So the fatality rate per gun in the US in a SINGLE year is still 10x higher than the fatality rate of the 707 over it's ENTIRE LIFETIME. The fatality rate of the 777 is 0.00002%. So you were 20x more likely to die in a fatal accident on a 707 than you are on a 777. But the fatal accident rate of the 707 was still just 0.0004% (an order of magnitude less likely than your "statistical anomaly"). Do you think the difference in fatal accident rates between the 707 and the 777 is just a statistical anomaly, or do you understand there can be statistical significance even between unlikely events. If you can't understand that the 777 is demonstrably and undisputedly safer than a 707 (even though the likelihood of dying in either was/is exceedingly rate), please let me know so I can refrain from any further debate or discussion with you.
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In response to this post by hoothat)
Posted: 02/21/2018 at 10:31AM